CompTIA Security+ Question F-30

Ann, the security administrator, received a report from the security technician, that an unauthorized new user account was added to the server over two weeks ago. Which of the following could have mitigated this event?

A. Routine log audits
B. Job rotation
C. Risk likelihood assessment
D. Separation of duties

Answer: A

Explanation:
When a new user account is created, an entry is added to the Event Logs. By routinely auditing the event logs, you would know that an account has been created.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-28

A small business needs to incorporate fault tolerance into their infrastructure to increase data availability. Which of the following options would be the BEST solution at a minimal cost?

A. Clustering
B. Mirrored server
C. RAID
D. Tape backup

Answer: C

Explanation:
RAID, or redundant array of independent disks (RAID). RAID allows your existing servers to have more than one hard drive so that if the main hard drive fails, the system keeps functioning. RAID can achieve fault tolerance using software which can be done using the existing hardware and software.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-27

Which statement is TRUE about the operation of a packet sniffer?

A. It can only have one interface on a management network.
B. They are required for firewall operation and stateful inspection.
C. The Ethernet card must be placed in promiscuous mode.
D. It must be placed on a single virtual LAN interface.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A sniffer (packet sniffer) is a tool that intercepts data flowing in a network. If computers are connected to a local area network that is not filtered or switched, the traffic can be broadcast to all computers contained in the same segment. This doesn’t generally occur, since computers are generally told to ignore all the comings and goings of traffic from other computers. However, in the case of a sniffer, all traffic is shared when the sniffer software commands the Network Interface Card (NIC) to stop ignoring the traffic. The NIC is put into promiscuous mode, and it reads communications between computers within a particular segment. This allows the sniffer to seize everything that is flowing in the network, which can lead to the unauthorized access of sensitive data. A packet sniffer can take the form of either a hardware or software solution. A sniffer is also known as a packet analyzer.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-26

A database administrator would like to start encrypting database exports stored on the SAN, but the storage administrator warns that this may drastically increase the amount of disk space used by the exports. Which of the following explains the reason for the increase in disk space usage?

A. Deduplication is not compatible with encryption
B. The exports are being stored on smaller SAS drives
C. Encrypted files are much larger than unencrypted files
D. The SAN already uses encryption at rest

Answer: C

Explanation:
Encryption adds overhead to the data which results in and increase in file size. This overhead is attached to each file and could include the encryption/decryption key, data recovery files and data decryption field in file header. As a result, requires increased storage space.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-25

Which of the following is the BEST method for ensuring all files and folders are encrypted on all corporate laptops where the file structures are unknown?

A. Folder encryption
B. File encryption
C. Whole disk encryption
D. Steganography

Answer: C

Explanation:
Full-disk encryption encrypts the data on the hard drive of the device or on a removable drive. This feature ensures that the data on the device or removable drive cannot be accessed in a useable form should it be stolen. Furthermore, full-disk encryption is not dependant on knowledge of the file structure.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-24

After reviewing the firewall logs of her organization’s wireless APs, Ann discovers an unusually high amount of failed authentication attempts in a particular segment of the building. She remembers that a new business moved into the office space across the street. Which of the following would be the BEST option to begin addressing the issue?

A. Reduce the power level of the AP on the network segment
B. Implement MAC filtering on the AP of the affected segment
C. Perform a site survey to see what has changed on the segment
D. Change the WPA2 encryption key of the AP in the affected segment

Answer: A

Explanation:
Some access points include power level controls that allow you to reduce the amount of output provided if the signal is traveling too far.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-23

LDAP and Kerberos are commonly used for which of the following?

A. To perform queries on a directory service
B. To store usernames and passwords for Federated Identity
C. To sign SSL wildcard certificates for subdomains
D. To utilize single sign-on capabilities

Answer: D

Explanation:
Single sign-on is usually achieved via the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP), although Kerberos can also be used.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-22

Users have been reporting that their wireless access point is not functioning. They state that it allows slow connections to the internet, but does not provide access to the internal network. The user provides the SSID and the technician logs into the company’s access point and finds no issues. Which of the following should the technician do?

A. Change the access point from WPA2 to WEP to determine if the encryption is too strong
B. Clear all access logs from the AP to provide an up-to-date access list of connected users
C. Check the MAC address of the AP to which the users are connecting to determine if it is an imposter
D. Reconfigure the access point so that it is blocking all inbound and outbound traffic as a troubleshooting gap

Answer: C

Explanation:
The users may be connecting to a rogue access point. The rogue access point could be hosting a wireless network that has the same SSID as the corporate wireless network. The only way to tell for sure if the access point the users are connecting to is the correct one is to check the MAC address. Every network card has a unique 48-bit address assigned. A media access control address (MAC address) is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on the physical network segment. MAC addresses are used as a network address for most IEEE 802 network technologies, including Ethernet and WiFi. Logically, MAC addresses are used in the media access control protocol sublayer of the OSI reference model. MAC addresses are most often assigned by the manufacturer of a network interface controller (NIC) and are stored in its hardware, such as the card’s read-only memory or some other firmware mechanism. If assigned by the manufacturer, a MAC address usually encodes the manufacturer’s registered identification number and may be referred to as the burned-in address (BIA). It may also be known as an Ethernet hardware address (EHA), hardware address or physical address. This can be contrasted to a programmed address, where the host device issues commands to the NIC to use an arbitrary address. A network node may have multiple NICs and each NIC must have a unique MAC address. MAC addresses are formed according to the rules of one of three numbering name spaces managed by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE): MAC-48, EUI-48, and EUI-64.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-21

Which of the following can only be mitigated through the use of technical controls rather that user security training?

A. Shoulder surfing
B. Zero-day
C. Vishing
D. Trojans

Answer: B

Explanation:
A zero day vulnerability is an unknown vulnerability in a software application. This cannot be prevented by user security training. A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.