CompTIA Security+ Question F-20

During an anonymous penetration test, Jane, a system administrator, was able to identify a shared print spool directory, and was able to download a document from the spool. Which statement BEST describes her privileges?

A. All users have write access to the directory.
B. Jane has read access to the file.
C. All users have read access to the file.
D. Jane has read access to the directory.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The question states that Jane was able to download a document from the spool directory. To view and download the document, Jane must have at least Read access to the file. The fact that the document belonged to someone else suggests that all users have read access to the file.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-19

Which of the following can Peter, a security administrator, implement on his network to capture attack details that are occurring while also protecting his production network?

A. Security logs
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Audit logs
D. Honeypot

Answer: D

Explanation:
A honeypot is a system whose purpose it is to be attacked. An administrator can watch and study the attack to research current attack methodologies.

According to the Wepopedia.com, a Honeypot luring a hacker into a system has several main purposes:

The administrator can watch the hacker exploit the vulnerabilities of the system, thereby learning where the system has weaknesses that need to be redesigned. The hacker can be caught and stopped while trying to obtain root access to the system. By studying the activities of hackers, designers can better create more secure systems that are potentially invulnerable to future hackers.

There are two main types of honeypots: Production – A production honeypot is one used within an organization’s environment to help mitigate risk. Research – A research honeypot add value to research in computer security by providing a platform to study the threat.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-18

A company is looking to reduce the likelihood of employees in the finance department being involved with money laundering. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate this risk?

A. Implement privacy policies
B. Enforce mandatory vacations
C. Implement a security policy
D. Enforce time of day restrictions

Answer: B

Explanation:
A mandatory vacation policy requires all users to take time away from work to refresh. And in the same time it also gives the company a chance to make sure that others can fill in any gaps in skills and satisfy the need to have replication or duplication at all levels in addition to affording the company an opportunity to discover fraud for when others do the same job in the absence of the regular staff member then there is transparency.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-17

A security analyst has been tasked with securing a guest wireless network. They recommend the company use an authentication server but are told the funds are not available to set this up.
Which of the following BEST allows the analyst to restrict user access to approved devices?

A. Antenna placement
B. Power level adjustment
C. Disable SSID broadcasting
D. MAC filtering

Answer: D

Explanation:
A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-16

Data execution prevention is a feature in most operating systems intended to protect against which type of attack?

A. Cross-site scripting
B. Buffer overflow
C. Header manipulation
D. SQL injection

Answer: B

Explanation:
Data Execution Prevention (DEP) is a security feature included in modern operating systems. It marks areas of memory as either “executable” or “nonexecutable”, and allows only data in an “executable” area to be run by programs, services, device drivers, etc. It is known to be available in Linux, OS X, Microsoft Windows, iOS and Android operating systems. DEP protects against some program errors, and helps prevent certain malicious exploits, especially attacks that store executable instructions in a data area via a buffer overflow.

A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information – which has to go somewhere – can overflow into adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity. In buffer overflow attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the attacked computer that could, for example, damage the user’s files, change data, or disclose confidential information. Buffer overflow attacks are said to have arisen because the C programming language supplied the framework, and poor programming practices supplied the vulnerability.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-15

After working on his doctoral dissertation for two years, Peter, a user, is unable to open his dissertation file. The screen shows a warning that the dissertation file is corrupted because it is infected with a backdoor, and can only be recovered by upgrading the antivirus software from the free version to the commercial version. Which of the following types of malware is the laptop MOST likely infected with?

A. Ransomware
B. Trojan
C. Backdoor
D. Armored virus

Answer: A

Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware which restricts access to the computer system that it infects, and demands a ransom paid to the creator(s) of the malware in order for the restriction to be removed. Some forms of ransomware encrypt files on the system’s hard drive), while some may simply lock the system and display messages intended to coax the user into paying. Ransomware typically propagates as a trojan like a conventional computer worm, entering a system through, for example, a downloaded file or a vulnerability in a network service. The program will then run a payload: such as one that will begin to encrypt personal files on the hard drive. More sophisticated ransomware may hybrid-encrypt the victim’s plaintext with a random symmetric key and a fixed public key. The malware author is the only party that knows the needed private decryption key. Some ransomware payloads do not use encryption. In these cases, the payload is simply an application designed to restrict interaction with the system, typically by setting the Windows Shell to itself, or even modifying the master boot record and/or partition table (which prevents the operating system from booting at all until it is repaired) Ransomware payloads utilize elements of scareware to extort money from the system’s user. The payload may, for example, display notices purportedly issued by companies or law enforcement agencies which falsely claim that the system had been used for illegal activities, or contains illegal content such as pornography and pirated software or media. Some ransomware payloads imitate Windows’ product activation notices, falsely claiming that their computer’s Windows installation is counterfeit or requires re-activation. These tactics coax the user into paying the malware’s author to remove the ransomware, either by supplying a program which can decrypt the files, or by sending an unlock code that undoes the changes the payload has made.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-14

Which of the following is true about an email that was signed by User A and sent to User B?

A. User A signed with User B’s private key and User B verified with their own public key.
B. User A signed with their own private key and User B verified with User A’s public key.
C. User A signed with User B’s public key and User B verified with their own private key.
D. User A signed with their own public key and User B verified with User A’s private key.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The sender uses his private key, in this case User A’s private key, to create a digital signature. The message is, in effect, signed with the private key. The sender then sends the message to the receiver. The receiver (User B) uses the public key attached to the message to validate the digital signature. If the values match, the receiver knows the message is authentic. The receiver uses a key provided by the sender—the public key—to decrypt the message.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-13

Which of the following types of application attacks would be used to identify malware causing security breaches that have NOT yet been identified by any trusted sources?

A. Zero-day
B. LDAP injection
C. XML injection
D. Directory traversal

Answer: A

Explanation:
The security breaches have NOT yet been identified. This is zero day vulnerability. A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-12

The network security engineer just deployed an IDS on the network, but the Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has concerns that the device is only able to detect known anomalies. Which of the following types of IDS has been deployed?

A. Signature Based IDS
B. Heuristic IDS
C. Behavior Based IDS
D. Anomaly Based IDS

Answer: A

Explanation:
A signature based IDS will monitor packets on the network and compare them against a database of signatures or attributes from known malicious threats.

CompTIA Security+ Question F-11

In which of the following steps of incident response does a team analyse the incident and determine steps to prevent a future occurrence?

A. Mitigation
B. Identification
C. Preparation
D. Lessons learned

Answer: D

Explanation:
Incident response procedures involves in chronological order: Preparation; Incident identification; Escalation and notification; Mitigation steps; Lessons learned; Reporting; Recover/reconstitution procedures; First responder; Incident isolation (Quarantine; Device removal); Data breach; Damage and loss control. Thus lessons are only learned after the mitigation occurred. For only then can you ‘step back’ and analyze the incident to prevent the same occurrence in future.