CompTIA Security+ Question G-30

Ann is starting a disaster recovery program. She has gathered specifics and team members for a meeting on site. Which of the following types of tests is this?

A. Structured walkthrough
B. Full Interruption test
C. Checklist test
D. Tabletop exercise

Answer: A

Explanation:
A structured walkthrough test of a recovery plan involves representatives from each of the functional areas coming together to review the plan to determine if the plan pertaining to their area is accurate and complete and can be implemented when required.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-28

Which of the following concepts is enforced by certifying that email communications have been sent by who the message says it has been sent by?

A. Key escrow
B. Non-repudiation
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Hashing

Answer: B

Explanation:
Regarding digital security, the cryptological meaning and application of non-repudiation shifts to mean: A service that provides proof of the integrity and origin of data. An authentication that can be asserted to be genuine with high assurance.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-27

Which of the following is true about PKI? (Select TWO).

A. When encrypting a message with the public key, only the public key can decrypt it.
B. When encrypting a message with the private key, only the private key can decrypt it.
C. When encrypting a message with the public key, only the CA can decrypt it.
D. When encrypting a message with the public key, only the private key can decrypt it.
E. When encrypting a message with the private key, only the public key can decrypt it.

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
E: You encrypt data with the private key and decrypt with the public key, though the opposite is much more frequent. Public-key cryptography, also known as asymmetric cryptography, is a class of cryptographic protocols based on algorithms that require two separate keys, one of which is secret (or private) and one of which is public. Although different, the two parts of this key pair are mathematically linked.

D: In a PKI the sender encrypts the data using the receiver’s public key. The receiver decrypts the data using his own private key. PKI is a two-key, asymmetric system with four main components: certificate authority (CA), registration authority (RA), RSA (the encryption algorithm), and digital certificates. Messages are encrypted with a public key and decrypted with a private key. A PKI example: You want to send an encrypted message to Jordan, so you request his public key. Jordan responds by sending you that key. You use the public key he sends you to encrypt the message. You send the message to him.

Jordan uses his private key to decrypt the message.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-25

Emily, a security technician, has received notice that a vendor coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside of the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. How could Emily BEST accommodate the vendor?

A. Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor’s IP address.
B. Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
C. Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Firewall rules are used to define what traffic is able pass between the firewall and the internal network. Firewall rules block the connection, allow the connection, or allow the connection only if it is secured. Firewall rules can be applied to inbound traffic or outbound traffic and any type of network.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-24

An administrator wishes to hide the network addresses of an internal network when connecting to the Internet. The MOST effective way to mask the network address of the users would be by passing the traffic through a:

A. stateful firewall
B. packet-filtering firewall
C. NIPS
D. NAT

Answer: D

Explanation:
NAT serves as a basic firewall by only allowing incoming traffic that is in response to an internal system’s request.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-23

Emily, a security engineer, is testing encryption ciphers for performance. Which of the following ciphers offers strong encryption with the FASTEST speed?

A. 3DES
B. Blowfish
C. Serpent
D. AES256

Answer: B

Explanation:
Blowfish is an encryption system invented by a team led by Bruce Schneier that performs a 64-bit block cipher at very fast speeds. Blowfish is a fast, except when changing keys. It is a symmetric block cipher that can use variable-length keys (from 32 bits to 448 bits).

CompTIA Security+ Question G-22

A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?

A. Peer to Peer
B. Mobile devices
C. Social networking
D. Personally owned devices

Answer: C

Explanation:
There many companies that allow full use of social media in the workplace, believing that the marketing opportunities it holds outweigh any loss in productivity. What they are unknowingly minimizing are the threats that exist. Rather than being all new threats, the social networking/media threats tend to fall in the categories of the same old tricks used elsewhere but in a new format. A tweet can be sent with a shortened URL so that it does not exceed the 140­character limit set by Twitter; unfortunately, the user has no idea what the shortened URL leads to. This makes training your employees regarding the risks social networking entails essential.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-21

Which of the following may cause Jane, the security administrator, to seek an ACL work around?

A. Zero day exploit
B. Dumpster diving
C. Virus outbreak
D. Tailgating

Answer: A

Explanation:
A zero day vulnerability is an unknown vulnerability so there is no fix or patch for it. One way to attempt to work around a zero day vulnerability would be to restrict the permissions by using an ACL (Access Control List) A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.