CompTIA Security+ Question K-60

Which of the following ports and protocol types must be opened on a host with a host-based firewall to allow incoming SFTP connections?

A. 21/UDP
B. 21/TCP
C. 22/UDP
D. 22/TCP

Answer: D

Explanation:
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.

CompTIA Security+ Question K-59

Which of the following concepts defines the requirement for data availability?

A. Authentication to RADIUS
B. Non-repudiation of email messages
C. Disaster recovery planning
D. Encryption of email messages

Answer: C

Explanation:
A disaster-recovery plan, or scheme, helps an organization respond effectively when a disaster occurs. Disasters may include system failure, network failure, infrastructure failure, and natural disaster. The primary emphasis of such a plan is reestablishing services and minimizing losses.

CompTIA Security+ Question K-58

An achievement in providing worldwide Internet security was the signing of certificates associated with which of the following protocols?

A. TCP/IP
B. SSL
C. SCP
D. SSH

Answer: B

Explanation:
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is used for establishing an encrypted link between two computers, typically a web server and a browser. SSL is used to enable sensitive information such as login credentials and credit card numbers to be transmitted securely.

CompTIA Security+ Question K-57

The information security team does a presentation on social media and advises the participants not to provide too much personal information on social media web sites. This advice would BEST protect people from which of the following?

A. Rainbow tables attacks
B. Brute force attacks
C. Birthday attacks
D. Cognitive passwords attacks

Answer: D

Explanation:
Social Networking Dangers are ‘amplified’ in that social media networks are designed to mass distribute personal messages. If an employee reveals too much personal information it would be easy for miscreants to use the messages containing the personal information to work out possible passwords.

CompTIA Security+ Question K-55

Which of the following is an advantage of implementing individual file encryption on a hard drive which already deploys full disk encryption?

A. Reduces processing overhead required to access the encrypted files
B. Double encryption causes the individually encrypted files to partially lose their properties
C. Individually encrypted files will remain encrypted when copied to external media
D. File level access control only apply to individually encrypted files in a fully encrypted drive

Answer: C

Explanation:
With full disk encryption a file is encrypted as long as it remains on the disk. This is because the data on the disk is decrypted when the user logs on, thus the data is in a decrypted form when it is copied to another disk. Individually encrypted files on the other hand remain encrypted.

CompTIA Security+ Question K-54

A security technician needs to open ports on a firewall to allow for domain name resolution.
Which of the following ports should be opened? (Select TWO).

A. TCP 21
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 53
D. UDP 23
E. UDP 53

Answer: C,E

Explanation:
DNS uses TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers, whereas UDP port 53 is used for queries.

CompTIA Security+ Question K-53

Encryption of data at rest is important for sensitive information because of which of the following?

A. Facilitates tier 2 support, by preventing users from changing the OS
B. Renders the recovery of data harder in the event of user password loss
C. Allows the remote removal of data following eDiscovery requests
D. Prevents data from being accessed following theft of physical equipment

Answer: D

Explanation:
Data encryption allows data that has been stolen to remain out of the eyes of the intruders who took it as long as they do not have the proper passwords.

CompTIA Security+ Question K-52

Which of the following is the below pseudo-code an example of?
IF VARIABLE (CONTAINS NUMBERS = TRUE) THEN EXIT

A. Buffer overflow prevention
B. Input validation
C. CSRF prevention
D. Cross-site scripting prevention

Answer: B

Explanation:
Input validation is a defensive technique intended to mitigate against possible user input attacks, such as buffer overflows and fuzzing. Input validation checks every user input submitted to the application before processing that input. The check could be a length, a character type, a language type, or a domain.

CompTIA Security+ Question K-51

Which of the following can a security administrator implement on mobile devices that will help prevent unwanted people from viewing the data if the device is left unattended?

A. Screen lock
B. Voice encryption
C. GPS tracking
D. Device encryption

Answer: A

Explanation:
Screen-lock is a security feature that requires the user to enter a PIN or a password after a short period of inactivity before they can access the system again. This feature ensures that if your device is left unattended or is lost or stolen, it will be difficult for anyone else to access your data or applications.