CompTIA Security+ Question A-40

The system administrator is reviewing the following logs from the company web server:
12:34:56 GET /directory_listing.php?user=admin&pass=admin1
12:34:57 GET /directory_listing.php?user=admin&pass=admin2
12:34:58 GET /directory_listing.php?user=admin&pass=1admin
12:34:59 GET /directory_listing.php?user=admin&pass=2admin
Which of the following is this an example of?

A. Online rainbow table attack
B. Offline brute force attack
C. Offline dictionary attack
D. Online hybrid attack

Answer: D

Explanation:
This is an example of an online hybrid attack. A hybrid attack is a combination of attacks. In this example, we have a combination of a dictionary attack and a brute-force attack. A brute force attack is a trial-and-error method used to obtain information such as a user password or personal identification number (PIN). In a brute force attack, automated software is used to generate a large number of consecutive guesses as to the value of the desired data. A dictionary attack uses a list of words to use as passwords. The combination or hybrid attack adds characters or numbers or even other words to the beginning or end of the password guesses. In this example we have a password guess of ‘admin’. From the word admin, we have four combinations, ‘admin1, 1admin, admin2, 2admin’.

CompTIA Security+ Question A-39

Matt, an IT administrator, wants to protect a newly built server from zero day attacks. Which of the following would provide the BEST level of protection?

A. HIPS
B. Antivirus
C. NIDS
D. ACL

Answer: A

Explanation:
Intrusion prevention systems (IPS), also known as intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS), are network security appliances that monitor network and/or system activities for malicious activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it.

Intrusion prevention systems are considered extensions of intrusion detection systems because they both monitor network traffic and/or system activities for malicious activity. The main differences are, unlike intrusion detection systems, intrusion prevention systems are placed in-line and are able to actively prevent/block intrusions that are detected. More specifically, IPS can take such actions as sending an alarm, dropping the malicious packets, resetting the connection and/or blocking the traffic from the offending IP address. An IPS can also correct Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) errors, unfragment packet streams, prevent TCP sequencing issues, and clean up unwanted transport and network layer options. Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an installed software package which monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host. A Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an installed software package which monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host. As a zero-day attack is an unknown vulnerability (a vulnerability that does not have a fix or a patch to prevent it), the best defence would be an intrusion prevention system.

CompTIA Security+ Question A-38

After visiting a website, a user receives an email thanking them for a purchase which they did not request. Upon investigation the security administrator sees the following source code in a pop-up window:




Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?

A. SQL injection
B. Cookie stealing
C. XSRF
D. XSS

Answer: C

Explanation:
XSRF or cross-site request forgery applies to web applications and is an attack that exploits the web application’s trust of a user who known or is supposed to have been authenticated. This is often accomplished without the user’s knowledge.

CompTIA Security+ Question A-37

A malicious individual is attempting to write too much data to an application’s memory. Which of the following describes this type of attack?

A. Zero-day
B. SQL injection
C. Buffer overflow
D. XSRF

Answer: C

Explanation:
A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information – which has to go somewhere – can overflow into adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity. In buffer overflow attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the attacked computer that could, for example, damage the user’s files, change data, or disclose confidential information. Buffer overflow attacks are said to have arisen because the C programming language supplied the framework, and poor programming practices supplied the vulnerability.

CompTIA Security+ Question A-36

Which of the following network design elements allows for many internal devices to share one public IP address?

A. DNAT
B. PAT
C. DNS
D. DMZ

Answer: B

Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.

Most home networks use PAT. In such a scenario, the Internet Service Provider (ISP) assigns a single IP address to the home network’s router. When Computer X logs on the Internet, the router assigns the client a port number, which is appended to the internal IP address. This, in effect, gives Computer X a unique address. If Computer Z logs on the Internet at the same time, the router assigns it the same local IP address with a different port number. Although both computers are sharing the same public IP address and accessing the Internet at the same time, the router knows exactly which computer to send specific packets to because each computer has a unique internal address.

CompTIA Security+ Question A-35

A company’s business model was changed to provide more web presence and now its ERM software is no longer able to support the security needs of the company. The current data center will continue to provide network and security services. Which of the following network elements would be used to support the new business model?

A. Software as a Service
B. DMZ
C. Remote access support
D. Infrastructure as a Service

Answer: A

Explanation:
Software as a Service (SaaS) allows for on-demand online access to specific software applications or suites without having to install it locally. This will allow the data center to continue providing network and security services.

CompTIA Security+ Question A-34

On a train, an individual is watching a proprietary video on Peter’s laptop without his knowledge. Which of the following does this describe?

A. Tailgating
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Interference
D. Illegal downloading

Answer: B

Explanation:
Looking at information on a computer screen without the computer user’s knowledge is known as shoulder surfing. Shoulder surfing is using direct observation techniques, such as looking over someone’s shoulder, to get information. Shoulder surfing is an effective way to get information in crowded places because it’s relatively easy to stand next to someone and watch as they fill out a form, enter a PIN number at an ATM machine, or use a calling card at a public pay phone. Shoulder surfing can also be done long distance with the aid of binoculars or other vision-enhancing devices. To prevent shoulder surfing, experts recommend that you shield paperwork or your keypad from view by using your body or cupping your hand.

CompTIA Security+ Question A-33

When a communications plan is developed for disaster recovery and business continuity plans, the MOST relevant items to include would be: (Select TWO).

A. Methods and templates to respond to press requests, institutional and regulatory reporting requirements.
B. Methods to exchange essential information to and from all response team members, employees, suppliers, and customers.
C. Developed recovery strategies, test plans, post-test evaluation and update processes.
D. Defined scenarios by type and scope of impact and dependencies, with quantification of loss potential.
E. Methods to review and report on system logs, incident response, and incident handling.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
A: External emergency communications that should fit into your business continuity plan include notifying family members of an injury or death, discussing the disaster with the media, and providing status information to key clients and stakeholders. Each message needs to be prepared with the audience (e.g., employees, media, families, government regulators) in mind; broad general announcements may be acceptable in the initial aftermath of an incident, but these will need to be tailored to the audiences in subsequent releases.

B: A typical emergency communications plan should be extensive in detail and properly planned by a business continuity planner. Internal alerts are sent using either email, overhead building paging systems, voice messages or text messages to cell/smartphones with instructions to evacuate the building and relocate at assembly points, updates on the status of the situation, and notification of when it’s safe to return to work.

CompTIA Security+ Question A-32

To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation?

A. Management
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Operational

Answer: C

Explanation:
controls such as preventing unauthorized access to PC’s and applying screensavers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity is a technical control type, the same as Identification and Authentication, Access Control, Audit and Accountability as well as System and Communication Protection.

CompTIA Security+ Question A-31

Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?

A. TKIP
B. Mac filtering
C. WPA2
D. WPA

Answer: A

Explanation:
TKIP is a suite of algorithms that works as a “wrapper” to WEP, which allows users of legacy WLAN equipment to upgrade to TKIP without replacing hardware. TKIP uses the original WEP programming but “wraps” additional code at the beginning and end to encapsulate and modify it.