CompTIA Security+ Question C-10

Which of the following would Peter, a security administrator, MOST likely implement in order to allow employees to have secure remote access to certain internal network services such as file servers?

A. Packet filtering firewall
B. VPN gateway
C. Switch
D. Router

Answer: B

Explanation:
VPNs are usually employed to allow remote access users to connect to and access the network, and offer connectivity between two or more private networks or LANs. A VPN gateway (VPN router) is a connection point that connects two LANs via a nonsecure network such as the Internet.

CompTIA Security+ Question C-8

A security engineer is given new application extensions each month that need to be secured prior to implementation. They do not want the new extensions to invalidate or interfere with existing application security. Additionally, the engineer wants to ensure that the new requirements are approved by the appropriate personnel. Which of the following should be in place to meet these two goals? (Select TWO).

A. Patch Audit Policy
B. Change Control Policy
C. Incident Management Policy
D. Regression Testing Policy
E. Escalation Policy
F. Application Audit Policy

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
A backout (regression testing) is a reversion from a change that had negative consequences. It could be, for example, that everything was working fi ne until you installed a service pack on a production machine, and then services that were normally available were no longer accessible. The backout, in this instance, would revert the system to the state that it was in before the service pack was applied. Backout plans can include uninstalling service packs, hotfi xes, and patches, but they can also include reversing a migration and using previous firmware. A key component to creating such a plan is identifying what events will trigger your implementing the backout. A change control policy refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets in the event of changes occurring.

CompTIA Security+ Question C-7

Which of the following can be used on a smartphone to BEST protect against sensitive data loss if the device is stolen? (Select TWO).

A. Tethering
B. Screen lock PIN
C. Remote wipe
D. Email password
E. GPS tracking
F. Device encryption

Answer: C,F

Explanation:
C: Remote wipe is the process of deleting data on a device in the event that the device is stolen. This is performed over remote connections such as the mobile phone service or the internet connection and helps ensure that sensitive data is not accessed by unauthorized people.

F: Device encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen.

CompTIA Security+ Question C-6

Which of the following BEST describes the weakness in WEP encryption?

A. The initialization vector of WEP uses a crack-able RC4 encryption algorithm. Once enough packets are captured an XOR operation can be performed and the asymmetric keys can be derived.
B. The WEP key is stored in plain text and split in portions across 224 packets of random data. Once enough packets are sniffed the IV portion of the packets can be removed leaving the plain text key.
C. The WEP key has a weak MD4 hashing algorithm used. A simple rainbow table can be used to generate key possibilities due to MD4 collisions.
D. The WEP key is stored with a very small pool of random numbers to make the cipher text. As the random numbers are often reused it becomes easy to derive the remaining WEP key.

Answer: D

Explanation:
WEP is based on RC4, but due to errors in design and implementation, WEP is weak in a number of areas, two of which are the use of a static common key and poor implementation of initiation vectors (IVs). When the WEP key is discovered, the attacker can join the network and then listen in on all other wireless client communications.

CompTIA Security+ Question C-5

Which of the following security devices can be replicated on a Linux based computer using IP tables to inspect and properly handle network based traffic?

A. Sniffer
B. Router
C. Firewall
D. Switch

Answer: C

Explanation:
Ip tables are a user-space application program that allows a system administrator to configure the tables provided by the Linux kernel firewall and the chains and rules it stores.

CompTIA Security+ Question C-4

An auditing team has found that passwords do not meet best business practices. Which of the following will MOST increase the security of the passwords? (Select TWO).

A. Password Complexity
B. Password Expiration
C. Password Age
D. Password Length
E. Password History

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Passwords should have the strength to avoid discovery through attack, but it should also be easy enough for the user to remember. The length and complexity of a password combined are vital factors in defining a password’s strength.

CompTIA Security+ Question C-3

All executive officers have changed their monitor location so it cannot be easily viewed when passing by their offices. Which of the following attacks does this action remediate?

A. Dumpster Diving
B. Impersonation
C. Shoulder Surfing
D. Whaling

Answer: C

Explanation:
Viewing confidential information on someone’s monitor is known as shoulder surfing. By moving their monitors so they cannot be seen, the executives are preventing users passing by ‘shoulder surfing’.

Shoulder surfing is using direct observation techniques, such as looking over someone’s shoulder, to get information. Shoulder surfing is an effective way to get information in crowded places because it’s relatively easy to stand next to someone and watch as they fill out a form, enter a PIN number at an ATM machine, or use a calling card at a public pay phone. Shoulder surfing can also be done long distance with the aid of binoculars or other vision-enhancing devices. To prevent shoulder surfing, experts recommend that you shield paperwork or your keypad from view by using your body or cupping your hand.

CompTIA Security+ Question C-2

During a routine audit a web server is flagged for allowing the use of weak ciphers. Which of the following should be disabled to mitigate this risk? (Select TWO).

A. SSL 1.0
B. RC4
C. SSL 3.0
D. AES
E. DES
F. TLS 1.0

Answer: A,E

Explanation:
TLS 1.0 and SSL 1.0 both have known vulnerabilities and have been replaced by later versions. Any systems running these ciphers should have them disabled. Transport Layer Security (TLS) and its predecessor, Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), are cryptographic protocols designed to provide communications security over a computer network. They use X.509 certificates and hence asymmetric cryptography to authenticate the counterparty with whom they are communicating, and to exchange a symmetric key. This session key is then used to encrypt data flowing between the parties. This allows for data/message confidentiality, and message authentication codes for message integrity and as a by-product, message authentication Netscape developed the original SSL protocol. Version 1.0 was never publicly released because of serious security flaws in the protocol; version 2.0, released in February 1995, “contained a number of security flaws which ultimately led to the design of SSL version 3.0”. TLS 1.0 was first defined in RFC 2246 in January 1999 as an upgrade of SSL Version 3.0. As stated in the RFC, “the differences between this protocol and SSL 3.0 are not dramatic, but they are significant enough to preclude interoperability between TLS 1.0 and SSL 3.0”. TLS 1.0 does include a means by which a TLS implementation can downgrade the connection to SSL 3.0, thus weakening security. TLS 1.1 and then TLS 1.2 were created to replace TLS 1.0.

CompTIA Security+ Question C-1

While setting up a secure wireless corporate network, which of the following should Peter, an administrator, avoid implementing?

A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. WEP
D. WPA

Answer: C

Explanation:
WEP is one of the more vulnerable security protocols. The only time to use WEP is when you must have compatibility with older devices that do not support new encryption.