CompTIA Security+ Question I-60

A network administrator has identified port 21 being open and the lack of an IDS as a potential risk to the company. Due to budget constraints, FTP is the only option that the company can is to transfer data and network equipment cannot be purchased. Which of the following is this known as?

A. Risk transference
B. Risk deterrence
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk avoidance

Answer: C

CompTIA Security+ Question I-59

An organization has introduced token-based authentication to system administrators due to risk of password compromise. The tokens have a set of numbers that automatically change every 30 seconds. Which of the following type of authentication mechanism is this?

A. TOTP
B. Smart card
C. CHAP
D. HOTP

Answer: A

Explanation:
Time-based one-time password (TOTP) tokens are devices or applications that generate passwords at fixed time intervals. In this case, it’s every 30 seconds.

CompTIA Security+ Question I-58

Without validating user input, an application becomes vulnerable to all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Buffer overflow.
B. Command injection.
C. Spear phishing.
D. SQL injection.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Input validation is a defensive technique intended to mitigate against possible user input attacks, such as buffer overflows and fuzzing. Input validation checks every user input submitted to the application before processing that input. The check could be a length, a character type, a language type, or a domain.

CompTIA Security+ Question I-57

Which of the following would Jane, an administrator, use to detect an unknown security vulnerability?

A. Patch management
B. Application fuzzing
C. ID badge
D. Application configuration baseline

Answer: B

Explanation:
Fuzzing is a software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data to as inputs to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, or failed validation, or memory leaks.

CompTIA Security+ Question I-56

A security administrator needs to image a large hard drive for forensic analysis. Which of the following will allow for faster imaging to a second hard drive?

A. cp /dev/sda /dev/sdb bs=8k
B. tail -f /dev/sda > /dev/sdb bs=8k
C. dd in=/dev/sda out=/dev/sdb bs=4k
D. locate /dev/sda /dev/sdb bs=4k

Answer: C

Explanation:
dd is a command-line utility for Unix and Unix-like operating systems whose primary purpose is to convert and copy files. dd can duplicate data across files, devices, partitions and volumes On Unix, device drivers for hardware (such as hard disks) and special device files (such as /dev/zero and /dev/random) appear in the file system just like normal files; dd can also read and/or write from/to these files, provided that function is implemented in their respective driver. As a result, dd can be used for tasks such as backing up the boot sector of a hard drive, and obtaining a fixed amount of random data. The dd program can also perform conversions on the data as it is copied, including byte order swapping and conversion to and from the ASCII and EBCDIC text encodings. An attempt to copy the entire disk using cp may omit the final block if it is of an unexpected length; whereas dd may succeed. The source and destination disks should have the same size.

CompTIA Security+ Question I-55

Peter, the system administrator, wishes to monitor and limit users’ access to external websites.
Which of the following would BEST address this?

A. Block all traffic on port 80.
B. Implement NIDS.
C. Use server load balancers.
D. Install a proxy server.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A proxy is a device that acts on behalf of other(s). In the interest of security, all internal user interaction with the Internet should be controlled through a proxy server. The proxy server should automatically block known malicious sites. The proxy server should cache often-accessed sites to improve performance.

CompTIA Security+ Question I-54

The string:
‘ or 1=1– ­
Represents which of the following?

A. Bluejacking
B. Rogue access point
C. SQL Injection
D. Client-side attacks

Answer: C

Explanation:
The code in the question is an example of a SQL Injection attack. The code ‘1=1’ will always provide a value of true. This can be included in statement designed to return all rows in a SQL table.

SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an application’s software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.

CompTIA Security+ Question I-53

A user, Ann, is reporting to the company IT support group that her workstation screen is blank other than a window with a message requesting payment or else her hard drive will be formatted. Which of the following types of malware is on Ann’s workstation?

A. Trojan
B. Spyware
C. Adware
D. Ransomware

Answer: D

Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware which restricts access to the computer system that it infects, and demands a ransom paid to the creator(s) of the malware in order for the restriction to be removed. Some forms of ransomware encrypt files on the system’s hard drive), while some may simply lock the system and display messages intended to coax the user into paying. Ransomware typically propagates as a trojan like a conventional computer worm, entering a system through, for example, a downloaded file or a vulnerability in a network service. The program will then run a payload: such as one that will begin to encrypt personal files on the hard drive. More sophisticated ransomware may hybrid-encrypt the victim’s plaintext with a random symmetric key and a fixed public key. The malware author is the only party that knows the needed private decryption key. Some ransomware payloads do not use encryption. In these cases, the payload is simply an application designed to restrict interaction with the system, typically by setting the Windows Shell to itself, or even modifying the master boot record and/or partition table (which prevents the operating system from booting at all until it is repaired)

Ransomware payloads utilize elements of scareware to extort money from the system’s user. The payload may, for example, display notices purportedly issued by companies or law enforcement agencies which falsely claim that the system had been used for illegal activities, or contains illegal content such as pornography and pirated software or media. Some ransomware payloads imitate Windows’ product activation notices, falsely claiming that their computer’s Windows installation is counterfeit or requires re-activation. These tactics coax the user into paying the malware’s author to remove the ransomware, either by supplying a program which can decrypt the files, or by sending an unlock code that undoes the changes the payload has made.

CompTIA Security+ Question I-52

A security analyst needs to logon to the console to perform maintenance on a remote server. Which of the following protocols would provide secure access?

A. SCP
B. SSH
C. SFTP
D. HTTPS

Answer: B

Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a tunneling protocol originally used on Unix systems. It’s now available for both Unix and Windows environments. SSH is primarily intended for interactive terminal sessions. SSH is used to establish a command-line, text-only interface connection with a server, router, switch, or similar device over any distance.

CompTIA Security+ Question I-51

One of the system administrators at a company is assigned to maintain a secure computer lab. The administrator has rights to configure machines, install software, and perform user account maintenance. However, the administrator cannot add new computers to the domain, because that requires authorization from the Information Assurance Officer. This is an example of which of the following?

A. Mandatory access
B. Rule-based access control
C. Least privilege
D. Job rotation

Answer: C

Explanation:
A least privilege policy should be used when assigning permissions. Give users only the permissions that they need to do their work and no more.