CompTIA Security+ Question G-60

Mandatory vacations are a security control which can be used to uncover which of the following?

A. Fraud committed by a system administrator
B. Poor password security among users
C. The need for additional security staff
D. Software vulnerabilities in vendor code

Answer: A

Explanation:
Mandatory vacations also provide an opportunity to discover fraud apart from the obvious benefits of giving employees a chance to refresh and making sure that others in the company can fill those positions and make the company less dependent on those persons; a sort pf replication and duplication at all levels.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-59

Which of the following assets is MOST likely considered for DLP?

A. Application server content
B. USB mass storage devices
C. Reverse proxy
D. Print server

Answer: B

Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. A USB presents the most likely device to be used to steal data because of its physical size.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-58

Configuring key/value pairs on a RADIUS server is associated with deploying which of the following?

A. WPA2-Enterprise wireless network
B. DNS secondary zones
C. Digital certificates
D. Intrusion detection system

Answer: A

Explanation:
WPA2-Enterprise is designed for enterprise networks and requires a RADIUS authentication server.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-57

A security administrator is aware that a portion of the company’s Internet-facing network tends to be non-secure due to poorly configured and patched systems. The business owner has accepted the risk of those systems being compromised, but the administrator wants to determine the degree to which those systems can be used to gain access to the company intranet. Which of the following should the administrator perform?

A. Patch management assessment
B. Business impact assessment
C. Penetration test
D. Vulnerability assessment

Answer: C

Explanation:
Penetration testing is the most intrusive type of testing because you are actively trying to circumvent the system’s security controls to gain access to the system. It is also used to determine the degree to which the systems can be used to gain access to the company intranet (the degree of access to local network resources). Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Pen tests can be automated with software applications or they can be performed manually. Either way, the process includes gathering information about the target before the test (reconnaissance), identifying possible entry points, attempting to break in (either virtually or for real) and reporting back the findings. The main objective of penetration testing is to determine security weaknesses. A pen test can also be used to test an organization’s security policy compliance, its employees’ security awareness and the organization’s ability to identify and respond to security incidents. Penetration tests are sometimes called white hat attacks because in a pen test, the good guys are attempting to break in.

Pen test strategies include:

Targeted testing Targeted testing is performed by the organization’s IT team and the penetration testing team working together. It’s sometimes referred to as a “lights-turned-on” approach because everyone can see the test being carried out.

External testing This type of pen test targets a company’s externally visible servers or devices including domain name servers (DNS), e-mail servers, Web servers or firewalls. The objective is to find out if an outside attacker can get in and how far they can get in once they’ve gained access.

Internal testing This test mimics an inside attack behind the firewall by an authorized user with standard access privileges. This kind of test is useful for estimating how much damage a disgruntled employee could cause.

Blind testing A blind test strategy simulates the actions and procedures of a real attacker by severely limiting the information given to the person or team that’s performing the test beforehand. Typically, they may only be given the name of the company. Because this type of test can require a considerable amount of time for reconnaissance, it can be expensive.

Double blind testing Double blind testing takes the blind test and carries it a step further. In this type of pen test, only one or two people within the organization might be aware a test is being conducted. Double-blind tests can be useful for testing an organization’s security monitoring and incident identification as well as its response procedures.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-56

An SSL/TLS private key is installed on a corporate web proxy in order to inspect HTTPS requests.
Which of the following describes how this private key should be stored so that it is protected from theft?

A. Implement full disk encryption
B. Store on encrypted removable media
C. Utilize a hardware security module
D. Store on web proxy file system

Answer: C

Explanation:
Hardware Security Module (HSM) hardware-based encryption solution that is usually used in conjunction with PKI to enhance security with certification authorities (CAs). It is available as an expansion card and can cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-55

Which of the following is a penetration testing method?

A. Searching the WHOIS database for administrator contact information
B. Running a port scanner against the target’s network
C. War driving from a target’s parking lot to footprint the wireless network
D. Calling the target’s helpdesk, requesting a password reset

Answer: D

Explanation:
A penetration test is a proactive and authorized attempt to evaluate the security of an IT infrastructure by safely attempting to exploit system vulnerabilities, including OS, service and application flaws, improper configurations, and even risky end-user behavior. Such assessments are also useful in validating the efficacy of defensive mechanisms, as well as end-users’ adherence to security policies. Penetration testing evaluates an organization’s ability to protect its networks, applications,

endpoints and users from external or internal attempts to circumvent its security controls to gain unauthorized or privileged access to protected assets. Test results validate the risk posed by specific security vulnerabilities or flawed processes, enabling IT management and security professionals to prioritize remediation efforts. By embracing more frequent and comprehensive penetration testing, organizations can more effectively anticipate emerging security risks and prevent unauthorized access to critical systems and valuable information. Penetration tests are not always technically clever attempts to access a network. By calling the target’s helpdesk and requesting a password reset, if they reset the password without requiring proof that you are authorized to request a password change, you can easily gain access to the network.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-54

Which of the following pseudocodes can be used to handle program exceptions?

A. If program detects another instance of itself, then kill program instance.
B. If user enters invalid input, then restart program.
C. If program module crashes, then restart program module.
D. If user’s input exceeds buffer length, then truncate the input.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Exception handling is an aspect of secure coding. When errors occur, the system should revert back to a secure state. This must be coded into the system by the programmer, and should capture all errors and exceptions that could cause the application or its modules to crash. Restarting the application or module would ensure that the application reverts back to a secure state.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-53

After copying a sensitive document from his desktop to a flash drive, Peter, a user, realizes that the document is no longer encrypted. Which of the following can a security technician implement to ensure that documents stored on Peter’s desktop remain encrypted when moved to external media or other network based storage?

A. Whole disk encryption
B. Removable disk encryption
C. Database record level encryption
D. File level encryption

Answer: D

Explanation:
Encryption is used to ensure the confidentiality of information. In this case you should make use of file level encryption. File level encryption is a form of disk encryption where individual files or directories are encrypted by the file system itself. This is in contrast to full disk encryption where the entire partition or disk, in which the file system resides, is encrypted.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-52

An investigator recently discovered that an attacker placed a remotely accessible CCTV camera in a public area overlooking several Automatic Teller Machines (ATMs). It is also believed that user accounts belonging to ATM operators may have been compromised. Which of the following attacks has MOST likely taken place?

A. Shoulder surfing
B. Dumpster diving
C. Whaling attack
D. Vishing attack

Answer: A

Explanation:
The CCTV camera has recorded people entering their PINs in the ATMs. This is known as shoulder surfing.

Shoulder surfing is using direct observation techniques, such as looking over someone’s shoulder, to get information. Shoulder surfing is an effective way to get information in crowded places because it’s relatively easy to stand next to someone and watch as they fill out a form, enter a PIN number at an ATM machine, or use a calling card at a public pay phone. Shoulder surfing can also be done long distance with the aid of binoculars or other vision-enhancing devices. To prevent shoulder surfing, experts recommend that you shield paperwork or your keypad from view by using your body or cupping your hand.

CompTIA Security+ Question G-51

A way to assure data at-rest is secure even in the event of loss or theft is to use:

A. Full device encryption.
B. Special permissions on the file system.
C. Trusted Platform Module integration.
D. Access Control Lists.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Device encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen.